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December 05, 2007

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goofy

This is not a recent change. "none" has been used with singular and plural verbs in serious writing since Old English. The idea that "none" should only be singular arose in the 19th century, but there is no basis for it.

Ariadne Alexander

Can you help me with a grammar emergency, by which I mean "help me settle a bet"?
In the phrase "If Rich's house is sold by Rich" what part of speech is "by Rich"?

Kevin Siegel

I sent your question to Jennie. Stay tuned to my newsletter for her response.

Jordan

Are you sure it can be both? I was always told to cancel prepositional phrases before checking to see if a sentence 'sounded' right. Prepositional phrases have nothing to do with subject-verb agreement. If what you say is true, then that rule cannot be applied anymore.

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